EASTER, PASSOVER, or BOTH?

 

157 PATTIES PLACE

 

"And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison . . . intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."  (Acts 12:3,4)

The "Perilous Times" explains the single occurrence of "Easter" in the King James Bible (Acts 12:4) by insisting that Herod was a Pagan, Ishtar, and Astarte worshipper (without providing us with any final authority on the matter).

After such enlightening speculation, the "Perilous Times" scolds everyone and anyone (as it usually does), who holds to the synonymous "Easter/Passover" explanation, intimating that all who do so are Bible Correctors. "Easter" needs not and should not be changed in the King James Bible!

If for no other reason, "Easter" supplies us with the only cross reference to the synonymy of "Easter" and "Passover" in earlier English Bibles. It is not an error. Never was!

We can respect men who hold differing opinions on difficult matters, if their intentions and motives are to defend the AV 1611's integrity. Two views may differ and still be on the same side.

Still, it is difficult to ignore the "Perilous Times" intolerance of other positions (which also seek to defend the KJB). Can private interpretation "dogma" be allowed to go unchallenged, when it dictates, intimidates, and mandates what others "must" believe?

 

 

The Perilous Times and

Its New Wrinkle

 

The Perilous Time's newest contention, regarding Acts 12:3-4 is quite simple, saying the words Easter and Passover cannot be synonymous, for if that were the case the Passover day was ended, because they were now in the "days of unleavened bread," and Herod would have to wait another whole year, until the next year's Passover to release Peter "after" Passover. On the surface this sounds pretty good. But not so fast!

 

Passover - One Day

or Several?

 

"In the first month, in the fourteenth day of the month, ye shall have the passover, a feast of seven days;"  (Ezek. 45:21)

"Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the Passover. And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast. And when they had fulfilled the days, as they returned . . ."  (Luke 2:41-43)

"Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the passover." (Luke 22:1)

The solution to avoiding error here is not to use the term "Passover" more tightly or strictly than do the scriptures. Not only does the Passover refer to a day, a feast, a feast day, a lamb, and a meal; it also refers to a seven-day feast, the whole week or feast of unleavened bread.

The "one day" Passover theory creates all sorts of confusion. The Passover was killed on the first day of unleavened bread (Mark 14:12-16); a criminal was released at the Passover (John 18:39); Jesus was in the judgement hall and before Pilate before the Passover (John 18:28; 19:14) was eaten.

And yet, Jesus and his disciples ate the Passover before all of this took place (Luke 7:15). They ate the Passover with the bitter herbs and unleavened bread and unleavened fruit of the vine.

If we allow the "Passover" to be one and only one day, Herod would, indeed, have to wait another year to release Peter, "after Passover." Nevertheless, the scriptures will not allow such narrow private interpretation.

The main feast day (John 2:28) may well be called the Passover. Still, both of the Testaments call the whole feast of seven days -- "Passover." Even a third view enters the picture in that the private Passover was on a different day than that of the Temple Passover for the priests and Levites. The entire feast or days of unleavened bread are synonymous with Passover, dispelling the "Perilous Times" dogma, speculation, and new wrinkle.

It was Herod's desire to "please" the Jews, which motivated him to arrest Peter and to avoid any ruckus during the Passover week. If Herod honored heathen deities and believed in the Astarte, Ishtar, and the Easter Bunny, he could hardly have pleased the Jews even in the apostate in which they were found.

WHAT ABOUT EASTER IN THE KING JAMES BIBLE?

 

What about Easter in the King James Bible? Well, here is the crowning point of Bible correcting scholarship, the word "EASTER." Bible Correctors and experts (fellows who used to be spurts) lecture us that the Greek "PASCHA" means "Passover" and that the King James translators
mistranslated it in Acts 12:4. Have they finally pinned Astarte, Easter Bunnies, and Easter eggs on King James Onlys? We think not!

Bible Correctors have layd (old English spelling for laid) some mighty big "Easter" eggs (or should we say "Pasch eggs" or Passover eggs - Oxford English Dictionary, 1933, Vol. III), in this regard, making "much ado about nothing." Could it be that they did not receive an Easter
basket, when they were small fries? Could their real motives for correcting the KJB, be that they are mad at the Easter Bunny?

The word "Easter" was chosen by Tyndale to supply a much needed English word in the absence of an English word for the Jewish feast. A word for spring feast, Easter, was available, so Tyndale used it throughout his New Testament. Later, Tyndale "invented" a new word (passover), which he used in his Old Testament. Subsequent English Bibles used both words (even in expressions like the "Easter lamb"). Tyndale is responsible for both Bible words.

 

Tyndale's Bible (1525)

 

The first English Bible, from the so-called "original" Greek, translates "PASCHA" -- "paschall lamb" in Matthew 26:17, "ester" in the next verse (26:18), and "esterlambe" in the next verse (26:19). Also, it translates it "pascall lambe" in Mark 14:12 and "ester lambe" in Mark 14:14, 16. Then it has the nerve to translate 1 Cor. 5:7, "Christ oure esterlambe is offered up for us."

 

 

The Great Bible (1539)

 

The old "Great Bible" renders the Greek "PASCHA" - "passeover" in Matthew 26:17, "Easter" in the next verse (26:18), and "passeover in the following verse (26:19). Huh? Could the passover feast and the Easter feast (spring feast) really be used synonymously? Well, that rendering could still be a fluke. Yet, the "Great Bible" translates "PASCHA" – the "Jewes Easter" AND "Easter" in John 11:55. Hmmmmm!

 

 

 

The Bishop's Bible

(1568)

 

And what about the old Bishop's Bible? Well, it translates "PASCHA" - "Easter" twice in John 11:55 and "passeover"in the very next verse (12:1).

 

The 1933

Oxford Dictionary

 

The Oxford Dictionary, 1933, Oxford University Press, Vol. III) gives the secondary and obsolete definition of "Easter" as the "Jewish passover," citing six quotations from ancient English literature, dating from 971 to 1611, which used the word Easter in reference to the "Jewish Passover."

Evidently, the inferior scholars from Oxford, Cambridge, and West Minster (who were often fluent in several languages) were not troubled by the
things which bother the superior scholars of our time. And what about "Oster (Easter)" in Martin Luther's German Bible? Nah! You really wouldn't want to go into that. It gets worse! (Ich nicht Nazi, Ich Polski! Shiessen Zie nicht!)

Now, for all those who are concerned about Astarte, goddess of fertility and her Pagan custom in connection with Easter, the Webster's 1828 Dictionary of the English language renders a PASCH-EGG as - An egg stained and presented to young persons, about the time of Easter. So, help yourself in putting the pagan Pascha passover back into Acts 12:4.                 (THE END)